SEBA Social Science (English Medium) Question Papers 2025 – Full Solution

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Subject Code: C4
Full Marks: 90
Pass Marks: 27

SEBA Social Science Question Papers 2025

SECTION-A

(Choose the correct answer of the following questions)

1. Which of the following statements are true about the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
(i) It resulted in the second important political upheaval in India after the 1857 Revolt.
(ii) It was executed to suppress the growing national consciousness in Bengal.
(iii) Shillong was made the capital of Eastern Bengal and Assam.
(iv) It led to the Swadeshi Movement.

(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (a) (i), (ii), (iv)

2. Which of the following best explains why Gopal Krishna Gokhale returned his ‘Knighthood’ title to the British Government?
(a) He felt the British Government was failing to provide adequate governance.
(b) He was dissatisfied with his position in the British administration.
(c) He disagreed with the British policy of partitioning Bengal.
(d) He sought to retire from public life and focus on personal matters.

Answer: (c) He disagreed with the British policy of partitioning Bengal.

3. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

• Assertion (A): The Swadeshi Movement in India aimed to promote indigenous goods and reduce dependency on British products.
• Reason (R): The Swadeshi Movement primarily aimed to protest against British taxes and government loans.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

4. Who among the following edited a magazine Vande Mataram during Swadeshi Movement in India?
(a) Arabinda Ghose
(b) Krishna Kumar Mitra
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Kumudini Mishra

Answer: (a) Arabinda Ghose

5. Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement. Which of the following options are correct about the Movement?
(i) Salt laws were challenged.
(ii) Students left government school.
(iii) Unity among Hindus and Muslims.
(iv) Women did not participate.

(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)

6. Which of the following were the provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(i) India and Pakistan were to become independent on August 15, 1947.
(ii) Each dominion was to have a Prime Minister appointed by the king.
(iii) Two dominions of India and Pakistan were to be established, and their Constituent Assemblies were to decide whether to remain within the British Commonwealth of Nations or not.
(iv) The Legislatures of both the dominions were restricted to making laws only under the supervision of the British Parliament.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (b) (i) and (iii)

7. Arrange the following historical events following the sequence they occurred from old to new:
(i) August Revolution
(ii) Direct Action Day
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Demand for Complete Independence

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Answer: (d) (iii) Simon Commission, (iv) Demand for Complete Independence, (i) August Revolution, (ii) Direct Action Day.

8. Choose the correct option based on the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):

• Assertion (A): In the last decades of the 19th century, Assam witnessed a series of peasant revolts.
• Reason (R): Peasants organized themselves through the Raij Mels.

(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

9. How did the British Government’s treatment of the leaders of the revolt of Manipur affect subsequent resistance movements in the region?
(a) It encouraged further resistance by demonstrating that British authority could be contested.
(b) It led to a decline in local resistance due to increased repression.
(c) It created a sense of cooperation between British authorities and local leaders.
(d) It did not have any significant impact on future resistance movements.

Answer: (a) It encouraged further resistance by demonstrating that British authority could be contested.

10. According to Heramba Kanta Borpujari, several Brahmin Purohits of Upper Assam joined the 1857 Revolt. Which was the correct reason for it?
(a) They supported the cause of Ahom aristocracy.
(b) They lost their jobs after the British annexation of Assam.
(c) The British took away their excess Lakheraj (revenue-free) lands.
(d) They wanted to free India from the British.

Answer: (c) The British took away their excess Lakheraj (revenue-free) lands.

11. The consumption of Abkari opium in Assam fell from 1615 maunds in 1920–21 to 993 maunds in 1922–23. Which of the following statements correctly explains the fall in the consumption of opium?
(a) The British Government recognising the ill effects of opium consumption restricted its sale.
(b) People understood the ill effects of opium consumption.
(c) There was fall in demand for opium among the people.
(d) Vigorous anti-opium campaign led by the Congress workers.

Answer: (d) Vigorous anti-opium campaign led by the Congress workers.

12. From the following options, choose the programme and the freedom movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, in which Leeladhar Baruah from Assam joined.
(a) Dandi March, Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Dandi March, Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Collection of funds through Tilak Swarajya Fund, Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Historic August Meeting in Bombay, Quit India Movement

Answer: (b) Dandi March, Civil Disobedience Movement

13. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Ambikagiri Raychoudhury – (a) Gyan Pradayini Sabha
(ii) Padmanath Gohain Baruah – (b) Bandini Bharat
(iii) Lakshminath Bezbarua – (c) Ahom Sabha
(iv) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan – (d) Been Boragi

(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(d) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

Answer: (a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

14. Which of the following is true about the Gandhara style?
(a) The central theme was the Hindu deities.
(b) It was developed mainly in Western Uttar Pradesh.
(c) It was influenced by the Mathura style only.
(d) It is associated with the Greco-Roman style.

Answer: (d) It is associated with the Greco-Roman style.

15. How does the cultural heritage of India reflect its historical diversity?
(a) Through uniform political history
(b) Through various languages, festivals and arts representing different regions
(c) Through a unified national language
(d) Through a single style of architecture

Answer: (b) Through various languages, festivals and arts representing different regions.

16. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Kathakali – (a) Andhra Pradesh
(ii) Bharatnatyam – (b) Kerala
(iii) Kathak – (c) Tamil Nadu
(iv) Kuchipudi – (d) Northern India

(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(c) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)

Answer: (a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

17. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): During the Indus Valley Civilization, diverse ways of worshipping were observed, and various deities were worshipped by the people.
• Reason (R): The ancient religious tradition of India accepted the principle of tolerance, co-existence, and assimilation among new traditions or religions.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

18. Choose the correct set of statements about the IUCN from the options given below.
(i) IUCN was formed in the year 1948.
(ii) The full form of IUCN is Indian Union for Conservation of Nature.
(iii) WWF and World Conservation Monitoring Centre were established with the initiative of IUCN.
(iv) George Chisholm was the founder Director-General of IUCN.

(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)

Answer: (d) (i), (iii)

19. Which among the following options is correct for quaternary sector of economy?
(a) Community-based tourism
(b) Innovative research on modern eco-friendly technology
(c) Sales executive of a shopping mall
(d) Green bus service for public transportation

Answer: (b) Innovative research on modern eco-friendly technology

20. Two statements are given below, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): With the change in society, simultaneous changes occur in the concept of resource, and consequent change in resource collection and use.
• Reason (R): With the expansion of human knowledge and development of science and technology many neutral stuffs and resistances are transformed into resources.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(b) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
(c) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

21. Which of the following are correct regarding conservation of resources?
(i) Economic use of resources considering long-lasting developmental process
(ii) More and more use of non-renewable resources instead of renewable resources
(iii) Possible optimum utilization of resources without any destruction and misuse
(iv) Preservation of resources for future without any use

(a) (i), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)

Answer: (d) (i), (iii)

22. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): Economic Geography studies human activities associated with production, distribution, consumption and exchange of resources in spatial and temporal contexts.
• Reason (R): Human’s way of life and their economic activities are different in terms of spatio-temporal variations.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

23. Which of the following sources of energy do/does not produce carbon dioxide?
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Geothermal energy
(iii) Hydroelectric energy
(iv) Fossil fuel

(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (d) (i), (ii), (iii)

24. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): Acid rain occurs when there is maximum concentration of Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.
• Reason (R): Such rains destroy forests and pollute water in the wetlands.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

25. What will be the adverse effect of melting of glaciers in the high altitude mountains and polar regions?
(i) Rise of sea level
(ii) Large extent of coastal areas will be submerged
(iii) Issues of water scarcity will be resolved
(iv) Biodiversity will be protected

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii)

Answer: (d) (i), (ii)

26. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about the pollution of urban centres located on the banks of rivers, and choose the correct answer.
(i) Urban garbage and industrial waste pollute the water of the rivers flowing through or by the side of urban centres.
(ii) About 55% of the total length of America’s river is polluted by agriculture related pollutants like chemical fertilizers.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true, (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is true

Answer: (c) (i) is true, (ii) is false

27. Consider the following statements in terms of regional environmental problems and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(i) Cities like Delhi, Bengaluru, Guwahati, Pune, etc., are facing shortage of underground water.
(ii) River bank soil erosion is a serious environmental problem in the states like West Bengal and Assam.

(a) (i) is true, (ii) is false
(b) (i) is false, (ii) is true
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false

Answer: (c) Both (i) and (ii) are true

28. Which among the following statements are correct about the northern hemisphere?
(i) 67% land is confined in this region.
(ii) 90% of the world’s population lives in this region.
(iii) 57% land is confined in this region.
(iv) 40% of the world’s population lives in this region.

(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (iii), (iv)

Answer: (c) (ii), (iii)

29. Identify the ocean from the characteristics mentioned below:
(i) This ocean covers about one-third of the earth’s surface area.
(ii) The average depth of this ocean is about 5000 metres.
(iii) The oceanic trenches like the deepest Mariana trench, Aleutian, Kurile, Philippine, Tonga, Peru-Chile, etc., are important.

(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean

Answer: (b) Pacific Ocean

30. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) South America : Sahara Desert
(b) Atlantic Ocean : Mariana Trench
(c) Asia : Bering Strait
(d) North America : Death Valley

Answer: (d) North America : Death Valley

31. Two statements are given below, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): Except the narrow coastal plains, the major part of the African continent is a large plateau, no high mountain range is there in the continent.
• Reason (R): The Kilimanjaro peak located on the east is the highest place of the African continent.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

32. Arrange the following geographical divisions of oceanic floor in the sequence they occur in increasing depth and find out the correct option.
(a) Deep Sea Trench, Oceanic Ridge, Oceanic Canyon, Deep Sea Plain, Continental Slope, Continental Shelf
(b) Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, Deep Sea Plain, Oceanic Canyon, Oceanic Ridge, Deep Sea Trench
(c) Continental Slope, Continental Shelf, Oceanic Canyon, Deep Sea Plain, Deep Sea Trench, Oceanic Ridge
(d) Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, Deep Sea Plain, Deep Sea Trench, Oceanic Canyon, Oceanic Ridge

Answer: (b) Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, Deep Sea Plain, Oceanic Canyon, Oceanic Ridge, Deep Sea Trench

33. Arrange the chronological flow of migration of the following groups of people to Assam.
(i) Mongoloid
(ii) Austric
(iii) Aryan
(iv) Ahom

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (d) (ii) Austric, (i) Mongoloid, (iii) Aryan, (iv) Ahom

34. During which of the following decades, the State of Assam witnessed lower growth rate of population as compared to India?
(a) 1901-1911
(b) 1981-1991
(c) 1991-2001
(d) 1941-1951

Answer: (a) 1901-1911

35. Why is a democratic government regarded as a better choice over other forms of government?
(i) It promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) It ensures economic development.
(iii) It provides a method of resolving conflict.

(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (b) (i), (iii)

36. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): To grasp the inner spirit of the Constitution, one should go through the Preamble of the Constitution.
• Reason (R): Each and every word mentioned in the Preamble bears ideals, philosophy and objectives of the Constitution.

(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

37. Who can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(b) Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) A retired judge of a High Court
(d) A retired judge of the Supreme Court

Answer: (b) Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

38. Find out the Agencies of the UNO.
(i) Secretariat
(ii) United Nations Human Rights Commission
(iii) General Assembly
(iv) International Monetary Fund

(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)

Answer: (d) (i) Secretariat, (iii) General Assembly

39. Which of the following statements is/are true in case of the General Assembly of the United Nations Organization?
(i) It is the biggest organ of the UNO.
(ii) It has ten temporary and five permanent members.
(iii) Its main function is to settle the cases filed by the affected member States.

(a) Only (i) is true
(b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iii) are true

Answer: (a) Only (i) is true

40. Identify the incorrect statements stated below relating to cheque money:
(i) As a medium of exchange, a cheque has general acceptability.
(ii) Refusal to accept cheque money will mean violation of the law of the land.
(iii) Cheque money is generated through economic offence.
(iv) A cheque is a claim against money and can be encashed at the counter of a bank.
(v) Only the Central Bank has the right to print and circulate cheque money.

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

Answer: (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

41. Romen opens an account in Allahabad Bank with a sum of Rupees twenty thousand (₹20,000). After three months of opening, he again deposits ₹3,000 in his account. At the end of the financial year, bank credits a sum of ₹550 as interest. Considering the above situation, choose the type of bank account Romen has.
(a) Current Deposit Account
(b) Fixed Deposit Account
(c) Recurring Deposit Account
(d) Savings Deposit Account

Answer: (d) Savings Deposit Account

42. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

• Assertion (A): Money is the most liquid asset.
• Reason (R): Money can be converted directly and immediately into goods and services that the holder of the money wants.

(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

43. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about economic growth and development and choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below.
(i) Economic development is a qualitative concept, but economic growth is a quantitative concept.
(ii) Economic development is a narrow concept, whereas economic growth is a broader concept.

(a) (i) is true, (ii) is true
(b) (i) is true, (ii) is false
(c) (i) is false, (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is true

Answer: (b) (i) is true, (ii) is false

44. The Chairman of ‘NITI Aayog’ is –
(a) The President
(b) The Union Finance Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Vice President

Answer: (c) The Prime Minister

45. Match the following and find out the correct answer:
(i) Democratic Planning – (a) Involves lowest level of administration in planning
(ii) Economic Planning – (b) People participate at different stages of plan making
(iii) Grassroot Planning – (c) To attain a set of well-defined developmental objectives

(a) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)
(c) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)

Answer: (d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)

SECTION-B

46. Compare the methods of protest used in the Swadeshi Movement with those employed in the earlier Indian Rebellion of 1857. (2)
Answer:
The methods of protest in the Swadeshi Movement (1905) and the Indian Rebellion of 1857 were fundamentally different.

• Swadeshi Movement (1905): The methods were largely non-violent and focused on economic and social self-reliance. Key methods included the boycott of British goods (like textiles and salt), promotion and use of indigenous (Swadeshi) products, establishment of national schools and colleges for education, and peaceful protests, processions, and meetings to mobilize public opinion. It was a mass-based movement with a clear economic and political agenda.
• Indian Rebellion of 1857: This was a violent, armed uprising. The methods involved mutiny by sepoys, armed attacks on British officials and establishments, capturing of treasuries and arsenals, and widespread warfare. It was a direct military and physical confrontation against British rule, primarily led by sepoys, feudal lords, and peasants.
• Comparison: The 1857 Rebellion was a spontaneous, violent, and military-centric revolt, whereas the Swadeshi Movement was a planned, largely non-violent, and mass-based political and economic movement.

47. Identify any two architectural features of the Rang Ghar. Why was this architecture built during the Ahom period? (2+1=3)
Answer:

• Two architectural features of the Rang Ghar:
  1. Structure and Material: It is a two-storied, octagonal-shaped building made of red baked bricks. A special type of mortar, made from a paste of rice and eggs (known as Karal), was used as the cementing agent.
  2. Roof Design: The roof is shaped like an inverted Ahom longboat, a distinctive feature of Ahom architecture. The top of the roof is adorned with intricately designed crocodile-like figures, adding to its unique aesthetic.
• Reason for its construction: The Rang Ghar was built during the Ahom period, specifically by Swargadeo Pramatta Singha, to serve as a royal sports pavilion. The Ahom kings and nobles would watch sports and cultural events, such as buffalo fights, elephant fights, and Bihu dances, from the upper floor of the Rang Ghar, which overlooked the Rupahi Pathar (field).

48. Evaluate the role of General Dyer in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the subsequent reactions to his actions. (2+2=4)
Answer:

• Role of General Dyer: General Reginald Dyer played the central and brutal role in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919. On that day, a large, peaceful crowd had gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar to protest the arrest of nationalist leaders and to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. General Dyer, intending to create a “moral effect” and terrorize Indians into submission, arrived with his troops, blocked the only main exit, and ordered his soldiers to open fire on the unarmed crowd without any warning. The firing continued for about ten minutes until the ammunition was nearly exhausted, resulting in the death of hundreds of innocent men, women, and children and injuring thousands more. His role was that of a ruthless executioner who deliberately perpetrated a massacre to crush the spirit of the Indian freedom struggle.
• Subsequent Reactions:
  1. Nationwide Condemnation: The massacre sent shockwaves across India, leading to widespread horror and condemnation. It shattered any remaining faith Indians had in British justice and fairness.
  2. Renunciation of Titles: As a mark of protest, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood. Mahatma Gandhi, deeply appalled, lost his faith in the British government.
  3. Rise of Nationalism: The event acted as a catalyst, intensifying the Indian nationalist movement. It led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), marking a new phase in the freedom struggle.
  4. Hunter Commission: The British government appointed the Hunter Commission to investigate the massacre. Although the commission condemned Dyer’s actions, he was not subjected to any legal punishment. He was merely relieved of his command, which was seen by Indians as a gross miscarriage of justice and further fueled their anger.

49. (a) Compare the data between Kamrup and Darrang. (2)
Answer:
Based on the provided statistical data on revenue collection:

• Initial Revenue (1832-33): In 1832-33, Kamrup’s revenue collection (₹1,10,181) was significantly higher than Darrang’s (₹41,506), by more than double.
• Growth over 20 years: Over the next two decades, both districts saw a substantial increase in revenue. By 1852-53, Kamrup’s revenue grew to ₹2,95,996 (an increase of about 169%), while Darrang’s revenue grew to ₹1,57,795 (a much larger increase of about 280%).
• Conclusion: While Kamrup consistently collected more revenue in absolute terms, the rate of increase in revenue collection was much steeper in Darrang during this period.

(b) What was the impact of the change on the peasants of Kamrup and Darrang? (2)
Answer:
The drastic increase in revenue collection had a severe and negative impact on the peasants of Kamrup and Darrang.

1. Increased Tax Burden: The sharp rise in revenue meant a corresponding increase in the land tax that the peasants had to pay. This heavy tax burden became unbearable for many.
2. Economic Hardship and Indebtedness: Unable to pay the high taxes, many peasants fell into debt, often borrowing from moneylenders at exorbitant interest rates. This led to the loss of their lands and pushed them into extreme poverty. This economic exploitation was a primary cause for the series of peasant revolts that erupted in Assam in the latter half of the 19th century, such as the Phulaguri Dhewa and the Patharughat Raijmel.

50. (a) Who are being referred to as ‘rulers’ in the statement? (1)
Answer: In the statement from the inaugural issue of ‘Jonaki’, the term ‘rulers’ refers to the British Government or the British colonial administration that was ruling India at the time.

(b) Which association published Jonaki? (1)
Answer: The magazine ‘Jonaki’ was published by the ‘Asamiya Bhasa Unnati Sadhini Sabha’ (Assamese Language Development Society), an association formed by Assamese students in Calcutta.

(c) If politics was out of the purview of Jonaki, then how did it contribute to the growth of nationalist consciousness? Provide at least three examples. (3)
Answer:
Even though ‘Jonaki’ avoided direct political confrontation with the British rulers, it played a pivotal role in the growth of nationalist consciousness in Assam through cultural and literary means.

1. Fostering Linguistic and Cultural Pride: ‘Jonaki’ ushered in the age of romanticism in Assamese literature, standardizing the language and giving it a new sense of dignity. By celebrating the beauty of the Assamese language and culture, it united the Assamese people under a common linguistic identity, which is a cornerstone of nationalism.
2. Glorification of Assam’s History: The writers of the ‘Jonaki’ era, like Lakshminath Bezbaroa and Hemchandra Goswami, wrote extensively about Assam’s glorious past, its history, and its heroes (like Lachit Borphukan). This revived a sense of pride and self-respect among the Assamese people, making them conscious of their unique identity and inspiring them to work for the upliftment of their land.

3. Spreading Modern and Progressive Ideas: ‘Jonaki’ introduced modern Western ideas of liberalism, humanism, and rationalism to its readers. It encouraged critical thinking and raised awareness about social evils like superstition and casteism. This intellectual awakening prepared the ground for political consciousness and the desire for self-rule, which are essential components of nationalism.

51. What are called Ubiquitous Resource and Localised Resource? Give example of each of these resources. (2)
Answer:

• Ubiquitous Resource: Resources that are found everywhere on Earth are called ubiquitous resources. Their availability is not restricted to any specific location.
  • Example: Sunlight and Air (which contains oxygen, nitrogen, etc.).
• Localised Resource: Resources that are found only in certain specific places are called localised resources. Their distribution is uneven and geographically concentrated.
  • Example: Minerals like Coal, Petroleum, Iron Ore, and Gold.

52. Read the following news headline of The Assam Tribune (29 December, 2022) and answer the question that follows: “Guwahati named among top 5 slowest cities in terms of average vehicle speed.” Mention three environmental problems being faced by Guwahati due to slow vehicle speed. (3)
Answer:
Three environmental problems faced by Guwahati due to slow vehicle speed are:

1. Air Pollution: Slow-moving vehicles and traffic congestion lead to the inefficient and incomplete combustion of fuel. This results in higher emissions of harmful pollutants like Carbon Monoxide (CO), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), and Particulate Matter (PM2.5). This severely degrades the city’s air quality, causing respiratory illnesses and other health problems for its citizens.
2. Noise Pollution: Traffic jams caused by slow vehicle speed lead to increased and prolonged honking by frustrated drivers. The constant noise from engines running at low speeds also contributes to high decibel levels. This noise pollution causes stress, anxiety, hearing problems, and a general decline in the quality of urban life.
3. Increased Energy Consumption and Heat Generation: Vehicles consume more fuel per kilometer when moving slowly in congested traffic compared to when moving at an optimal speed. This leads to a wastage of non-renewable fossil fuels. Furthermore, thousands of engines running simultaneously in a small area release a significant amount of heat, contributing to the “Urban Heat Island” effect, where the city becomes noticeably warmer than its surrounding rural areas.

53. Does Assam have prospect for the development of water transport? Give four arguments in support of your opinion. (4)
Answer:
Yes, Assam has immense prospects for the development of water transport. Four arguments in support of this opinion are:

1. Extensive River Network: Assam is blessed with a vast network of rivers, with the mighty Brahmaputra and the Barak river system flowing through its length and breadth. The Brahmaputra has already been declared as National Waterway-2 (NW-2) and the Barak as National Waterway-16 (NW-16). This natural network provides a ready-made, extensive infrastructure for inland water transport that can connect various parts of the state.
2. Cost-Effectiveness for Bulk Cargo: Water transport is the most cost-effective mode for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances. Developing this mode would significantly reduce the logistics cost for industries in Assam, such as tea, coal, cement, and petroleum, making them more competitive and boosting the state’s economy.
3. Eco-Friendly Mode of Transport: Compared to road and rail transport, inland water transport has a much lower carbon footprint per ton-kilometer. It consumes less fuel and causes less air pollution. Promoting water transport would help in reducing environmental pollution and contribute to a more sustainable transport ecosystem in Assam.
4. Potential for Regional and International Connectivity: Waterways can connect Assam not only with other states of India (like West Bengal via the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route) but also with neighboring countries like Bangladesh and Bhutan. This can boost regional trade, tourism, and cultural exchange, playing a crucial role in the success of India’s ‘Act East Policy’.

54. Based on the features given in the following table, compare the Pacific Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean. Draw the table and write your responses in it. (5)
Answer:

55. Draw a sketch map of Assam and locate therein any two of the following with names: (2+2=4)
(a) A bridge connecting north and south bank of the river Brahmaputra
(b) A National Park of Assam where we can find white-winged wood duck
(c) An oil refinery of Assam
Answer:
(This question requires the student to draw a map of Assam and mark the locations. The text below describes where these locations would be marked.)

• (a) A bridge connecting north and south bank of the river Brahmaputra: The student can mark and name any of the following: Saraighat Bridge (near Guwahati), Kolia Bhomora Setu (near Tezpur), or Bogibeel Bridge (near Dibrugarh).
• (b) A National Park of Assam where we can find white-winged wood duck: The student should mark and name Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in the Tinsukia district, as it is a key habitat for the state bird, the white-winged wood duck. Nameri National Park is also a valid answer.
• (c) An oil refinery of Assam: The student can mark and name any of the following: Digboi Refinery (in Tinsukia district), Guwahati (Noonmati) Refinery (in Guwahati), or Bongaigaon Refinery (in Bongaigaon district).

56. How are the permanent members different from the non-permanent members in the UN Security Council? (2)
Answer:
The permanent and non-permanent members of the UN Security Council differ in two fundamental ways:

1. Permanence and Tenure: The five permanent members (P5) – China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States – hold their seats permanently. In contrast, the ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a two-year term and cannot be re-elected immediately after their term expires.
2. Veto Power: The most significant difference is the ‘veto power’ held exclusively by the five permanent members. This power allows any of the P5 countries to block the adoption of any substantive resolution, even if all other 14 members vote in favor. Non-permanent members do not have this veto power.

57. Read the description below and answer the question that follows: Suppose, the government has set up a hospital in a village called Dambuk. The hospital provides free treatment to the Hindus. People of other religions have to bear the cost of treatment themselves. Can government take such measures in a country like India? Give your opinion. (3)
Answer:
No, the government cannot take such measures in a country like India. Such an action would be completely unconstitutional and against the fundamental principles of the Indian state.
My opinion is based on the following reasons:

1. Violation of the Principle of Secularism: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a “Secular” state. This means the state has no official religion and must treat all religions equally. Providing a public service like healthcare based on a person’s religion is a direct violation of this core principle.
2. Violation of the Right to Equality: Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before the law to all citizens. Article 15 explicitly prohibits the state from discriminating against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Providing free treatment to one religious group while charging another is a clear case of discrimination based on religion and is therefore unconstitutional.
3. Erosion of National Unity: Such discriminatory policies would create deep divisions, resentment, and conflict among different religious communities. It would undermine the social fabric and national unity of a diverse country like India.
   Therefore, any government action that discriminates on the basis of religion in the provision of public services is illegal, unethical, and fundamentally opposed to the idea of India.

58. Suppose you are at a hardware store to purchase some goods and willing to pay your bill amount by cheque. But the store owner is refusing to accept the payment by cheque and asks you to pay by cash. You do not have cash with you. What do you think why the store owner is refusing to accept the cheque? Suggest any alternative way of purchasing your goods that day. (1+1=2)
Answer:

• Reason for refusing the cheque: The store owner is likely refusing to accept the cheque due to the risks and inconveniences associated with it:
  1. Risk of a Bounced Cheque: There is a risk that the cheque might be dishonored or ‘bounce’ if there are insufficient funds in my bank account. In that case, the store owner would not receive the payment for the goods sold.
  2. Delayed Payment: Unlike a cash transaction, a cheque payment is not instant. The owner has to deposit the cheque in the bank and wait for it to be cleared, which can take a few days.
• Alternative way of purchasing: Since I do not have cash, I would suggest an alternative digital payment method to complete the purchase. I would ask the store owner if I could pay using:
  • UPI (Unified Payments Interface): Through apps like Google Pay, PhonePe, or Paytm, which allows for instant bank-to-bank transfer.
  • Debit Card or Credit Card: By swiping my card on their Point of Sale (POS) machine.

59. As per a 2022 report published by the World Bank, the life expectancy in some countries is mentioned below. Why do you think the life expectancy in the countries like Japan, Australia, Norway, etc., is higher compared to that of the countries like India, Pakistan, Angola, etc.? (2)
Answer:
The life expectancy in countries like Japan, Australia, and Norway is significantly higher than in countries like India, Pakistan, and Angola primarily due to vast differences in socio-economic development, healthcare, and overall quality of life. Key reasons include:

1. Advanced Healthcare System: Developed nations like Japan, Australia, and Norway have highly advanced, accessible, and affordable healthcare systems. They have better doctor-to-patient ratios, modern medical technology, and widespread health insurance coverage, which leads to better prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases.
2. Higher Standard of Living and Nutrition: These countries have higher per capita incomes, leading to a better standard of living. Citizens have access to nutritious food, clean drinking water, and superior sanitation facilities. Higher levels of education also lead to greater awareness about health and hygiene.
   In contrast, developing countries like India, Pakistan, and Angola struggle with challenges such as poverty, malnutrition, inadequate sanitation, limited access to quality healthcare, and a higher prevalence of infectious diseases, all of which contribute to a lower life expectancy.